(a) he intentionally penetrates the vagina, anus or mouth of another person (B) with his penis,
(b) B does not consent to the penetration, and
(c) A does not reasonably believe that B consents.

But as it is worded, especially the first top comment, it reads like defining rape.

[–] MarxMadness@lemmygrad.ml 17 points 8 months ago* (last edited 8 months ago)

Yeah, this is more of a redditor being pedantic (and another redditor not reading what they're saying) than defending rape. "Well ackshually" meets "oh you aren't immediately agreeing with everything I think??"

[–] ghost_of_faso2@lemmygrad.ml 14 points 8 months ago* (last edited 8 months ago)

Its a law setup to discriminate against LGBT+ couples by diminishing any rape comitted against them,

It isnt considerd 'rape' unless its man raping a women.

Another 'quirk' of the UKs system which has a 3% conviction rate for rape

Its one of those things where they know the situation is completely fucked up so they just change how they record it rather than address it.

[–] boyi 7 points 8 months ago

it's not just UK. Many commonwealth countries has the same legal definition.