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submitted 11 months ago by mintiefresh@lemmy.ca to c/games@lemmy.world
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[-] tal@kbin.social 2 points 11 months ago

I'm a little fuzzy as to why the first-sale doctrine exists for physical goods but not for digital goods. It seems to me that any reasonable economic rationale should affect either both or neither.

this post was submitted on 19 Sep 2023
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