Categorically false. When you look at the circumstances surrounding the drafting of 2A, it's clear what the framers intended. (EVERY able-bodied, white, adult male was a member of the militia. They were obligated to provide their own militarily-suitable arms, and were likewise obligated to train themselves in their use. Moreover, the existence of the right was a holdover from English common law, which recognized the right of people to be armed. Oh, and the first battle of the American Revolution? It was because the British were trying to seize arms, including a cannon, that the people had been using to protect themselves from First Nations peoples.) When you look at the debate that surrounded the National Firearms Act of 1934, it's clear that they knew a ban wouldn't pass court review; hence the reason that the opted for a tax. (And, BTW, they originally intended to include pistols; that fact that 'short barrel rifles' are part of the NFA today is because they were sloppy in making the edits prior to passage.) When you look at nearly 250 years of precedent, it's clear that it's an individual right. And when you look at SCOTUS rulings--Heller v. D.C., McDonald v. Chicago, Bruen v. NYSPRA--it's definite.

BTW, "well regulated" at the time was understood to mean trained, specifically people that knew how to use the arms they had the right to possess.