this post was submitted on 27 May 2026
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It just seems incredibly odd for there to be so many lines in a book about gender insisting that there is no way to refer to someone (in the English language, at least) without implying gender. She even mentions the possibility of using „it“ at one point!

I’m liking the book otherwise, but every time the narrators ponder about pronouns without even considering „they“ I have to ask myself if there is any point in ignoring it or if she genuinely just forgot. I don’t think it’s possible for her to have not known about it considering how well-read she was and how long it’s been in use.

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[–] AFKBRBChocolate@lemmy.ca 2 points 1 day ago (1 children)

But wasn't it generally for an unknown person, like "I heard someone but I'm not seeing them"? Not to make a non-gendered pronoun for a particular person?

[–] ZDL@lazysoci.al -3 points 1 day ago (1 children)
[–] AFKBRBChocolate@lemmy.ca 3 points 23 hours ago (1 children)

The OP is about UKlG "forgetting" about "they" as a gender neutral, and they aren't talking about for an unknown person, they're talking about a specific person. I'm not moving the goalpost, this is the exact thing we're discussing.

[–] ZDL@lazysoci.al 1 points 19 hours ago

What I responded to said this:

“They” was always a plural pronoun...

It wasn't always a plural pronoun. You were just plain wrong. So you moved the goalposts so you could be "right". And I pointed that out. It's not that hard to follow, you know.

Perhaps your original wording was just bad?