this post was submitted on 06 Jun 2026
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[–] Corvidae@lemmy.world 1 points 1 day ago* (last edited 1 day ago) (1 children)

While it's just a guess, pharmaceutical lobbying is likely why. None of that happened before the FDA was created sometime in the early 1900s.

Right now we're in the political stages of considering the regulating of internet access to minors, the addictiveness of social media is not regulated.

[–] Photonic@lemmy.world 1 points 1 day ago* (last edited 1 day ago) (1 children)

It’s an interesting thought, and maybe I’m misunderstanding you, but why would the pharmaceutical industry lobby to have certain drugs outlawed? For example, Purdue pharma went to great lengths to hide the truth about the addictiveness of their drug.

[–] Corvidae@lemmy.world 1 points 1 day ago* (last edited 1 day ago)

My limited understanding of the history was that during the patent medicine era, medicines had proprietary formulas and varying compositions. For example, many formulas had cannabis extract, others contained opium. The initial regulations therefore were done for medical purposes of drug purity. Edited to add, it wouldn't surprise me if the overuse of opium in the patent medicine era led directly to judging the medical usefulness of these drugs, although it's just a guess.