this post was submitted on 26 Jun 2026
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It's not objective fact unless it's been tested in court. And this has not.
That's an insane litmus test of objective fact. I'd say a significant amount of court rulings go blatantly against reality lmfao.
You can't test things in court that aren't disputed because someone has to dispute it... Who's gonna dispute that a contract is a contract? Read the text it says when you buy a game. It says what it says. No court can say a document doesn't say the words it literally explicitly says.
Well I'm sorry that you don't understand case law, but that's exactly how it works in situations like this.
Nobody now, because that's a precedent that's already been set. In a court.
Something that has not happened for the situation we're talking about.
Edit: to be clear, it's not necessarily true that nobody would dispute that actually. There are likely numerous cases regarding identifying the validity of a contract on the books, which is how we know exactly what one is.
If someone were to come up with an interesting enough situation that warrants a new case, then that outcome would be added to the list of cases that define what a contract is (do a Google search, there are already a whole bunch like that).
That's literally how the court system works.
So what are you suggesting is in question then? The licences sold for games will differ from game to game; if one of then were legally unsound, that wouldn't automatically make all of them legally unsound, and obviously that's local to the legal system in which that finding was made. That selling licences to play games is categorically unlawful? I think that's not a particularly plausible outcome, and is unlikely to propagate beyond the given jurisdiction the finding happens in if such a ruling were to happen.
There's no "the court system". There are court systems. You've only linked to US case law, which, for instance, doesn't apply to me. This does just seem to be a legal fetish (in the anthropological sense, not the sexual sense). A court ruling something or other doesn't even have worldwide legal implications, let alone worldwide epistemological implications.
As for what counts as piracy (a separate matter to the rabbit hole we've gone down), something being a legal term does not mean that the definition of the word matches 1:1 with its legal description. I'm sure we can both think of examples of murder which is not criminalised as murder by a given government, for example. Words are defined by their use, and people use piracy to refer to a method of obtainment.