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[-] Gsus4@feddit.nl 2 points 1 year ago* (last edited 1 year ago)

They are not on opposite ends. Nazis were not laissez-faire, protectionist actually: On the economic axis they were close to the middle.

Plus I'm not saying they are that close, I'm saying that the line you can draw between them can not be followed continuously, you probably need to take a few loops around other systems like Weimar liberalism, Italian Socialism and feudal Czarism or Marxism to go from one to the other.

I just gave that example because it looks like convergent evolution shaped by similar circumstances despite completely opposite origins.

[-] napoleonsdumbcousin@feddit.de 1 points 1 year ago

I think that is where our differences in thinking are:

I was thinking about modern nazis, which are way more laissez-faire than the "original" (at least where I live). At the same time I would argue it is not very important how a belief evolved if you are talking e.g. current party programs or policy. Sure it can be important for research, but it is only of secondary importance for "applied politics" if the result at the end is the same.

this post was submitted on 03 Sep 2023
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