this post was submitted on 26 Jul 2025
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[–] WalnutLum@lemmy.ml 79 points 1 day ago (35 children)

In Japan the fault for accidents is always assumed to be the larger vehicle. If a truck hits a car it's on the onus of the truck driver to prove he wasn't doing anything wrong, and if a car hits a cyclist, the car driver has to prove their innocence etc.

I think to most Americans that seems appalling (what if the stupid cyclist was doing something reckless?! Etc.), but it definitely makes people in Japan drive much safer in areas where there are potential cyclists, and thus makes it safer to cycle places easily.

[–] coyootje@lemmy.world 40 points 1 day ago (9 children)

It's the same in the Netherlands. The most vulnerable traffic participant is always protected. Bicycle gets hit by a car? Cars fault. Pedestrian gets hit by a bicycle? Cyclists fault. And so on.

[–] Zak@lemmy.world 5 points 1 day ago (4 children)

I've been the car driver in a bike versus car crash and I'm glad that wasn't the law where it happened. It was 100% the cyclist's fault; he ran a red light on a fairly fast road and was obscured by a box truck until he was in my lane.

I do think car drivers should be held to a higher standard because cars are more dangerous, but automatic fault based on vehicle size takes it a bit too far.

[–] AA5B@lemmy.world 15 points 1 day ago (1 children)

But they’re not claiming the car driver is always at fault, only the presumption of fault. Clearly demonstrating the other person ran a red light has a good chance of changing the judgement

[–] Zak@lemmy.world 4 points 1 day ago (1 children)

The comment about Japan said there's a presumption. The comment about the Netherlands suggests it's always the car driver's fault (I think this may be technically incorrect).

[–] 8uurg@lemmy.world 2 points 20 hours ago (1 children)

It is complicated. It is not technically always, but in practice is may very well be. As this page (in Dutch) notes that, unless the driver can show that 'overmacht' applies (they couldn't have performed any action that would have avoided or reduced bodily harm), they are (at least in part) responsible for damages. For example, not engaging the brakes as soon as it is clear that you would hit them, would still result in them being (partially) liable for costs, even if the cyclist made an error themselves (crossing a red light).

Because the burden of proof is on the driver, it may be hard to prove that this is the case, resulting in their insurance having to pay up even if they did not do anything wrong.

[–] Zak@lemmy.world 1 points 16 hours ago

Thanks for the clarification. That's probably reasonable, especially if it only determines whose insurance has to pay, not some additional penalty.

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