this post was submitted on 26 Mar 2026
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Literacy rates in medieval times were not what they are today, but they're still routinely underestimated. Most places, including peasant villages, would have had some people around who could read.
Then again, it also depends heavily in what part of the middle ages you are talking about. Early, high and late middle ages were almost different worlds in many regards.
It's really easy for people to fail to really grasp that the middle ages still account for about half of the common era. They began in the 5th century and ended in the 15th. It was so long and so much happened. At the beginning Europeans were abandoning Roman structures and by the end they'd built things that even the greatest Roman engineers would be amazed by and wars included guns.
It's almost as if that term was made up to put a name on something that wasn't Roman times or now
(Mind you, now being 16th century Italy)
I think that's incorrect, actually. By my calculations, we're at LEAST a dozen years farther along than that!
And some of us might not even be in Italy.
I wouldn't go THAT far.. Humans outside of Italy is just TOO unrealistic!
It's half roman times. Modern is no Rome. And pre medieval common era is full Rome.
In Norway we lost our written Norse language since everyone who could read died caring for the sick during the black plague. That's part of the reason for why written Norwegian and Danish are so similar today.
That is not even remotely true. In fact that is wrong on so many levels I don't even know where to start.
Also where matters a lot too