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submitted 9 months ago by floofloof@lemmy.ca to c/news@lemmy.world
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[-] Tinidril@midwest.social 1 points 9 months ago

What does this have to do with the topic we are discussing? Yeah, that was complete bullshit. If the argument is that the Supreme Court is illegitimate, then I'm with you. However, this particular ruling probably wouldn't be impacted by a change in the makeup of the court since, as I pointed out, it was a 9-0 ruling. Replace all three of Trump's nominees with judges that agree with you, and you still lose 6-3.

Personally I think Biden should have stuffed the court with one judge for each Federal district (13). Even if he did that, and all the new judges took your perspective, you still lose 9-4.

[-] FreakinSteve@lemmy.world 1 points 9 months ago

The Constitution says what it says. If I lost 6-3 it doesnt change the fact that they decided that the Constitution does not say what it says, and is not the law of the land. We can easily speculate why they ruled that way based on exactly what we know about their corruption. They rejected the Constitution; this is not debateable.

[-] Tinidril@midwest.social 1 points 9 months ago* (last edited 9 months ago)

And what does the constitution say about who decides when someone has participated in an insurrection? Exact constitutional text please.

[-] FreakinSteve@lemmy.world 1 points 9 months ago

It's the constitution, not Webster's dictionary. It is not the Constitution's job to define every single word that is within the Constitution. Participating in an insurrection is participating in an insurrection, which is what happened on January 6th. The Constitution clearly states that anyone who does such is ineligible to hold office again. This is not complicated at all. What is happening is a slow coup

[-] Tinidril@midwest.social 1 points 9 months ago

Read your argument above then read this response again. You are arguing that the court is overriding what the constitution says, then arguing that it doesn't matter that the constitution says nothing on the subject. Your mind is a really weird place.

[-] FreakinSteve@lemmy.world 1 points 9 months ago* (last edited 9 months ago)

According to your very own interpretation with this question there is no such thing as a crime because every time a crime is committed someone has to step in and define what a crime is. We can't say a victim was murdered because there's no one to determine what a murder is. Fraud and larceny cannot possibly be crimes because the Constitution nor the Senate have appointed someone to define what larceny and fraud is.

Do you not see how psychotic resorting to such ridiculous semantics are?

Why is everyone so desperate to back up the SCOTUS claim that 'there is no law, therefore there can be no disorder'?

It's not even a "dogs can't play basketball!" ruling; it's a "there are no dogs" ruling.

[-] Tinidril@midwest.social 1 points 9 months ago

Are you really not aware that one of the primary jobs of Congress is to literally define what a crime is? That's what laws are. There is literally a statute (several actually) passed by Congress that does define what murder, fraud, and larceny are. That's the cornerstone of due process. A crime isn't a crime unless there is a law being broken. You have failed your constitution test.

this post was submitted on 04 Mar 2024
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