this post was submitted on 29 Jul 2026
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[–] atro_city@fedia.io 18 points 4 days ago (2 children)

How do so many people own a home? There's no way that's right. How is this being counted? Is this a percentage of adults? Does it take the number of home owners and divide it by the number of adults in the country? Does it count adult children living in their parents homes as "owners"?

I need to see some methodology.

[–] Tolc@lemmy.world 6 points 4 days ago (1 children)
[–] atro_city@fedia.io 3 points 4 days ago (1 children)
[–] chuckleslord@lemmy.world 17 points 4 days ago

Commie block buildings were sold by the unit after the fall of communism in Europe. If ownership of those counts (seems likely) than that means a higher percentage of home owners than western Europe, where apartment complexes are usually rentals only.

[–] colourlessidea@sopuli.xyz 4 points 3 days ago

It’s owning vs renting I believe