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Assimilation rule
(lemmygrad.ml)
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this post was submitted on 04 Sep 2023
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1951
When the CCP occupied and annexed it.
So please stop being a dumb lib. Nothing of that was hard to find out.
Literally only the Tibetan "government in exile" (formed in 2011) and the CIA hold this opinion
Says who?
I can't find any sources other than the CCP in 1951 that say otherwise.
You're also using a state controlled agency to report your facts on one side but an independent source on the other.
The ROC holds that Tibet has been part of China since 1792 at latest, which is the consensus of non-PRC historians everywhere. The Qing Dynasty fully integrated Tibet, though Tibet and China had been co-ruled as part of the same country with no meaningful distinction since the 14th century.
lol, say we go back in time to the Qin Dynasty to restore China's borders to the liberal wet dream balkanisation map where only the 'Han majority proper' reside. It's 200 BC and their beloved anglo empires also should vanish into dust.
Date fixed as my drunk ass mixed up AD with BC
Fun fact, their balkanisation maps often don't even include the original territory of Kingdom of Qin as Chinese and/or Han. Also Qin Dynasty fallen in 206 but BC. The balkanisation maps seems to be often based on Spring and Autumn period (but with much less sense).
lol brainfart and time leaped to the Han dynasty.
Guess for them it's the more messy the map, the more they like it.
Average Westerner:
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Are you fucking for real? A quick google search, even on the heavily CIA edited Wikipedia, would tell you Tibet ( which was part of the Mongolic Dzungarian empire at the time) was annexed by Qing Empire in the 1700s.
You should ask the PRC to occupy your home, they'll educate you for free and double your life expectancy.