this post was submitted on 12 Dec 2023
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askchapo

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From a materialist perspective, why did the the global north, the western global north in particular, become so powerful it could loot the rest of the world with borderline impunity? (hexbear.net)
submitted 2 years ago* (last edited 2 years ago) by GinAndJuche@hexbear.net to c/askchapo@hexbear.net
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I've recently read"The Verge: Reformation, Renaissance, and Forty Years that Shook the World" and want to hear what all of you think the answer is, because I feel like the book was missing something in its thesis and I am not very sure what that is.

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[โ€“] Satanic_Mills@hexbear.net 14 points 2 years ago (1 children)

A large part of the British conquest of India was accomplished prior to the launch of the first sea-going steamships, by frequently heavily outnumbered armies (even accounting for local auxiliaries).

Divide and conquer played a large part, but also the social & financial institutions built in the West to outfit and keep a unified presence in India that was not vulnerable to its own tactics.

[โ€“] sooper_dooper_roofer@hexbear.net 7 points 2 years ago

90% of the British army was also made up of Indian soldiers before they colonized India

bc the brits were rich