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-11

Can we use offensive language like slurs against race and sex and the disabled? Because I thought it would be fun on c/askhistorians to do a couple questions on where and why the words exist? (lemmy.world)

submitted 1 day ago by Patnou@lemmy.world to c/support@lemmy.world

7 comments fedilink hide all child comments

Basically like asking Where did the N word become synonomis with black people and so forth? Or the R word to disabled people? I just wondering is it in the context of the sub and question without being hurtful or offending the majority can we use said words in a relative knowledge based approach to gain clarity on controversial subjects?

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[–] Fedegenerate@fedinsfw.app 4 points 1 day ago

[–] PragmaticOne@lemmy.world 3 points 1 day ago (2 children)

Why can’t you do what you have just done and omit the majority of the word? I know what you are referring to with R and N in this context..

[–] bloogoose@lemmy.zip 4 points 1 day ago (1 children)

Because they want to use the words.

[–] PragmaticOne@lemmy.world 4 points 1 day ago (1 children)

Well I wasn’t going to call them out on it :/

[–] nocturne@slrpnk.net 2 points 1 day ago

Never go full Tarantino.

[–] Patnou@lemmy.world 0 points 1 day ago

well last time I mean the N word in reqards to the Holocaust but everyone took it for African Americans. I used the R word and no one new or just assumed another word.

[–] Auster@thebrainbin.org 1 points 1 day ago

Titles aren't meant to be as long, and if it's not a bait, try to interpret whether what you write is not a provocation.