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submitted 5 months ago by yogthos@lemmy.ml to c/socialism@lemmy.ml
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[-] andyburke@fedia.io 0 points 5 months ago

Capitalism allowed the global north and "west" to outpace those other countries and exploit them in the first place. It wasn't moral, but capitalism is what positioned them in the first place.

[-] Cowbee@lemmy.ml 4 points 5 months ago

Yes, via violent domestic and hyper-violent international exploitation.

Read the linked text.

[-] andyburke@fedia.io 0 points 5 months ago

Like I said, it wasn't moral. It is still a result of capitalism. Think we've probably finished here because you're not my teacher and you don't assign me reading.

[-] Cowbee@lemmy.ml 2 points 5 months ago

It was not, it was a result of industrialization, followed by Imperialism.

Suit yourself though.

[-] andyburke@fedia.io 0 points 5 months ago

Colonial imperialism began with industrialization in your explanation? Capitalist countries were colonizing the world well before the industrial revolution.

[-] Cowbee@lemmy.ml 2 points 5 months ago

Colonialism is not the same as what I am referring to as Imperialism. I specifically mean the point at which Capitalism reaches outward and exports Capital to less developed countries to super-exploit for super-profits.

[-] andyburke@fedia.io 1 points 5 months ago
this post was submitted on 11 Jun 2024
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