this post was submitted on 08 Apr 2025
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Not true at all. It was done by force in most cases, with the commons being fenced off and privatized by violent force and serfs evicted from the land via wars (after which they were never given their land back). In almost all historical cases Proletarianization was done via economic, legal or violent coercion.
No. Because you're conflating time periods, countries and projecting stuff backwards. Enclosure riots began in the 16th century in England, but prior to that in the holy roman empire you had laws limiting urbanisation and laws for when a peasant could be collected by his landlord even if he had attempted to move into the city. Even as late as the 18th century you had laws in parts of Europe like the Stavnesbånd which outright banned serfs from moving to the city.