this post was submitted on 08 Dec 2025
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[–] antonim@lemmy.dbzer0.com 18 points 2 weeks ago (1 children)

And then the speakers from insular communities get told to fuck off with their special definitions, or they're so persistent that the new definition catches on. Either way, problem solved.

The word "literally" still serves its old purpose just fine, along with the new one.

[–] PabloSexcrowbar@piefed.social 14 points 2 weeks ago (4 children)

My issue with "literally" is that it's become an actual part of the dictionary definition rather than being recognized as merely a hyperbolic use of the word.

[–] yesman@lemmy.world 33 points 2 weeks ago (2 children)

Dictionaries are books of history, not law.

Language pedantry is a branch of theology.

[–] otter@lemmy.dbzer0.com 9 points 2 weeks ago

Those two sentences are not mutually exclusive.

[–] lastunusedusername2@sh.itjust.works 6 points 2 weeks ago (1 children)

But every word can be used hyperbolically.

[–] commie@lemmy.dbzer0.com 0 points 2 weeks ago (1 children)

no, it can't. hyperbole means to exaggerate, to a great degree. descriptors like "round" or "soft" can't be hyperbolic.

[–] nondescripthandle@lemmy.dbzer0.com 5 points 2 weeks ago (3 children)

Calling fat people round is hyperbole isn't it?

[–] Kraven_the_Hunter@lemmy.dbzer0.com 3 points 2 weeks ago* (last edited 2 weeks ago)

Or calling a bald guy "Curly"

[–] athatet@lemmy.zip 1 points 2 weeks ago

It really depends on how they are built. I have deffo seen some rounder obese people.

[–] commie@lemmy.dbzer0.com 1 points 2 weeks ago

no, it's either true or false, but even a false usage isn't hyperbolic, it's just wrong

[–] antonim@lemmy.dbzer0.com 14 points 2 weeks ago

Dictionaries can also note hyperbolic (and other "deformed") uses of words, especially when commonplace, I see no problem with that. You have some odd expectations from dictionaries.

[–] Honytawk@feddit.nl 5 points 2 weeks ago

A dictionary is a record.

Language influences the dictionary, the dictionary doesn't influence language.

[–] Digit@lemmy.wtf 1 points 2 weeks ago (1 children)

Did that literally happen?

Or has actual fallen foul of another meaning change too now?

[–] PabloSexcrowbar@piefed.social 1 points 2 weeks ago

It's a definition in Merriam-Webster as of several years ago.