this post was submitted on 25 Dec 2025
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The Mongols literally invaded and occupied Tibet. It wasn't merely a rhetorical excuse, it was a reality. When the Qing expelled the Mongols, they didn't subjugate the Tibetans, they subjugated the Mongols. The Tibetans were clearly incapable of defending against a return of the Mongols, so the Qing garrisoned the region to fight the Mongols, not the Tibetans.
How do we know that the Qing did not subjugate the Tibetans. Because the Tibetans did not lose their language, their religion, their cultural practices, their economic way of life, or their ability to self-govern. Don't project European subjugation where it does not exist. European subjugation meant child separation, genocide, mass displacement, destruction of ways of life, monoculture, outlawing language and religion on pain of torture and death, slavery, etc. That is subjugation. You will not find that in Tibet.
Until, that is, Tibet declares independence at the end of Qing Dynasty. That's when 95% of the Tibetan population becomes subjugated by a brutal system of slavery, disenfranchisement, and totalitarian servitude. That's subjugation. Modern China also has not subjugated Tibet, unless you mean by that the PLA subjugated the nobility of Tibet that enslaved and tortured their own people.