this post was submitted on 11 Feb 2026
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No. It doesn't.
If someone pulled out a gun, points it at someone, pulls the trigger and shoots; could they argue that they'd hoped they'd either not hit them or not hit something vital? and so they didn't intend to kill them?
You pull out a knife and brandish it threateningly: That sets up intent. We do not know the mind nor will we ever; therefore we can not use the basis of the mind for the inference of intent. We have to rely on actions which could be reasonably interpreted as intent.
Am I misunderstanding or is this completely wrong?
https://www.vbrownleelaw.com/the-role-of-intent-and-premeditation-in-homicide-cases/
Yes, and it has been done successfully.
https://www.studicata.com/summaries/superior-court-of-pennsylvania/commonwealth-v-predmore-2018-so9l74/