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[-] myslsl@lemmy.world 65 points 5 months ago

He is right. 1 approximates 1 to any accuracy you like.

[-] pruwybn@discuss.tchncs.de 25 points 5 months ago

Is it true to say that two numbers that are equal are also approximately equal?

[-] SpeakerToLampposts@lemmy.world 28 points 5 months ago

I recall an anecdote about a mathematician being asked to clarify precisely what he meant by "a close approximation to three". After thinking for a moment, he replied "any real number other than three".

[-] mpa92643@lemmy.world 23 points 5 months ago

"Approximately equal" is just a superset of "equal" that also includes values "acceptably close" (using whatever definition you set for acceptable).

Unless you say something like:

a ≈ b ∧ a ≠ b

which implies a is close to b but not exactly equal to b, it's safe to presume that a ≈ b includes the possibility that a = b.

[-] EatATaco@lemm.ee 5 points 5 months ago

Can I get a citation on this? Because it doesn't pass the sniff test for me. https://en.wikipedia.org/wiki/Approximation

[-] mpa92643@lemmy.world 21 points 5 months ago
[-] WldFyre@lemm.ee 3 points 5 months ago

ISO is not a source for mathematical definitions

[-] mpa92643@lemmy.world 22 points 5 months ago

It's a definition from a well-respected global standards organization. Can you name a source that would provide a more authoritative definition than the ISO?

There's no universally correct definition for what the ≈ symbol means, and if you write a paper or a proof or whatever, you're welcome to define it to mean whatever you want in that context, but citing a professional standards organization seems like a pretty reliable way to find a commonly-accepted and understood definition.

[-] BeardedGingerWonder@feddit.uk 19 points 5 months ago* (last edited 5 months ago)

Tbh I'm just impressed you:

A) knew there was an iso standard

  1. went to the effort of locating it

iii) posted it in respectful manner, and

e) are correct.

[-] match@pawb.social 3 points 5 months ago* (last edited 5 months ago)

assert np.isClose(3, 3)

[-] myslsl@lemmy.world 6 points 5 months ago* (last edited 5 months ago)

Yes, informally in the sense that the error between the two numbers is "arbitrarily small". Sometimes in introductory real analysis courses you see an exercise like: "prove if x, y are real numbers such that x=y, then for any real epsilon > 0 we have |x - y| < epsilon." Which is a more rigorous way to say roughly the same thing. Going back to informality, if you give any required degree of accuracy (epsilon), then the error between x and y (which are the same number), is less than your required degree of accuracy

[-] Leate_Wonceslace@lemmy.dbzer0.com 5 points 5 months ago

It depends on the convention that you use, but in my experience yes; for any equivalence relation, and any metric of "approximate" within the context of that relation, A=B implies A≈B.

this post was submitted on 27 Jun 2024
818 points (95.2% liked)

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