I'm fairly certain this post might end up revealing my lack of knowledge on this topic rather than being a sound technical question, but here goes:
Why are most people keen on VPN services when TOR was present all along? Is it just because TOR is "slower" than VPNs or some other reason related to access?
Here are the points that confuse me:
- Many services block TOR.
True, but that's the case with VPNs too. Netflix, Spotify, or some government website (won't specify which country) will give you a tough time when they detect VPN use.
- Your ISP will know you used TOR.
Sure, but they also know that you used a VPN. Not sure why so many people use this argument. Besides, if you use TOR bridges, your ISP won't know it.
- VPNs are super helpful when trying to circumvent CG-NAT.
And you'd be right there. Accessing clearnet to serve or host a service is much easier with a VPN. But then again, most people aren't trying to circumvent their CG-NAT to host service. They're trying to use the web more generally.
This post was inspired by my utter disillusionment of Mullvad.
OK, let's put aside my statement about the Foundation that seems to offend you so badly and look at the graph itself.
Understand that "adjusting" values to 2011 prices is neither linear nor always accurate. Besides, the range of goods and services available at the yr. 2011 $5 equivalent is not valid as they either cease to exist or do not come at the same quality.
Besides, this is a global measurement, so serious assumptions about methodology notwithstanding, there is almost non universal or global policy (mix or single) that will accurately demonstrate decrease in extreme poverty.
Just to counter your remark on ad hominem attack, you have assumed /deemed me as someone who doesn't understand all this. I understand the graph perfectly well and have even been part of analytical teams that make these graphs. I know what happens behind the scenes and the inadvertent data misrepresentation when dealing with multifactorial representations.