this post was submitted on 15 Feb 2026
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[–] CircaV@lemmy.ca 10 points 10 hours ago

The UK is almost as bad as the US afaik. They elected consecutive clowns (Johnson, Truss), did a humungous self-own with Brexit. Do violent crackdowns on student protests and climate change protests. Are sucking up to the US while it shits on them. Are unapologetic zionist supporters. Look what they did to Corbyn over their rabid Zionism.

[–] SpaceCowboy@lemmy.ca 0 points 7 hours ago

That's the norm isn't it? We wouldn't say "England" when talking about Roman era Britain. We generally use the term Briton to avoid confusion with people that came to the British Isles in later centuries.

[–] encelado748@feddit.org 28 points 21 hours ago (3 children)

If it is more historically correct then why not. I despise what Israel is doing to Palestine like any sane person should, but I see nothing wrong in getting historical names right. I would not be pissed if someone were to change Bizantine Empire with Eastern Roman Empire in a museum exhibition. This is not a win for Israel. Zionist are the one forgetting history by committing genocide.

[–] GandalftheBlack@feddit.org 3 points 9 hours ago* (last edited 9 hours ago) (1 children)

Palestine was literally the name of a Roman province.

Esit: Okay I actually read the article and it does make some sense, given that it was talking about the time before then.

[–] encelado748@feddit.org 1 points 9 hours ago (1 children)

The creation of the kingdom of Israel was 1100 years old when Roman emperor Hadrian renamed the Judaea province into Syria Palaestina. Before that Greek domination, Achaemenid domination, Babylonian domination and Assyrian domination. And before the Israelites, the Canaan, the Ghassulian and many others. The bible describe in details how that land was conquered with violence and genocide by the tribes of Israel. It makes no sense to make historical claim to that land.

[–] GandalftheBlack@feddit.org 2 points 8 hours ago (1 children)

The conquest of Canaan narrative is fictional propaganda, not a historical account of what actually happened.

[–] encelado748@feddit.org 1 points 8 hours ago* (last edited 8 hours ago) (1 children)

I never meant to imply otherwise. What I am saying is that we are discussing optics on the legitimacy or lack thereof of Israelite and Palestinian people to those land. Or at least we are discussing right to history representation for the Palestinian. And in my opinion there is no interpretation that gives credit to one claim or the other. The whole argument is idiotic. We should let historians focus on recovering the history of those land and keep modern politics outside ancient history museums.

[–] GandalftheBlack@feddit.org 2 points 7 hours ago

Oh right, I'm on board with that. Using ancient history for modern land claims is ridiculous.

[–] flandish@lemmy.world 11 points 21 hours ago (1 children)

As long as they remove the “Israel” part.

[–] BarbecueCowboy@lemmy.dbzer0.com 4 points 19 hours ago* (last edited 16 hours ago) (2 children)

It's been replaced by the classical names.

So Israel is there because it seems to have been present as a kingdom, but where we might see Palestine now would either be part of Israel, Judah, or the 'Philistine States' on the southern end which gets confusing.

[–] SmackemWittadic@lemmy.world 11 points 18 hours ago (1 children)

The museum explained that the term Canaan is now used for the southern Levant during the later second millennium BC, while UN terminology identifies modern boundaries such as Gaza, West Bank, Israel, and Jordan. Curators also plan to use “Palestinian” only as a cultural or ethnographic identifier where historically appropriate

So basically they are rewriting history to say there never was a Palestine to begin with.

[–] encelado748@feddit.org 10 points 13 hours ago* (last edited 13 hours ago) (1 children)

Palestine is the Latin term used by the Romans from the greek translation of the Egyptian term used to describe the Philistines. Only the costal area was to be considered “Palestine” before the romans decided to use that term to describe the entire area. To say that the entire area was Palestine is to rewrite history. To create a link between the Philistines and the modern inhabitants of Palestine is also rewriting history.

If I were to call Tuscans the ancient Etruscan people would I not commit the same mistake? The world is full of territories that saw their cultural, religious and ethnic makeup change radically throughout invasions. To identify the correct term to describe a specific period of history is not rewriting history. The Hyksos were not “Palestinian”, and I agree that it just add confusion. If historian have used retroactively the term Palestine to identify the area, I see no issue in revising the terminology to better align with the original context.

EDIT: I would like to add that the romans were the one guilty of rewriting history: the region was called Judea before the suppression of the Bar Kokhba revolt. Even if other interpretations were brought as cause for the rename of the land, the timing make it reasonable to say it was renamed to severe the connection between the land and the Jewish people.

[–] SmackemWittadic@lemmy.world 3 points 11 hours ago* (last edited 10 hours ago) (1 children)

I didn't mean the name of the region itself or the genetic origin of the inhabitants. I meant specifically the inhabitants that have known it as their home over the past 800 years, that are currently being very openly robbed of their home over that period.

If I was alive and had internet during the trail of tears, I'd be saying the same. Same for the Irish Potato Famine, Holocaust, Spanish Inquisition, Armenian genocide, and every act of replacing one culture with another.

EDIT: I would also like to say that I agree that removing current names and replacing them with names from the time of the historic artifact is actually a better representation of history. But in this specific situation wording is critical to not have people think that "history of Israelites" means "SEE! iT ALWAYS bELONgEd to iSrAEL!!"

[–] encelado748@feddit.org 2 points 10 hours ago

I get what you say. The problem is that being inaccurate for protecting Palestinian claim to their land is exactly what give credit to Israel. The kingdom of Israel has a much older claim to that land. Nonetheless this is inconsequential. We do not see Norway claiming northern France, Germany claiming Poland, Poland claiming Russia or Italy claiming France and Croatia. This is just silly. Modern Israel has no more claim to that land than Germany claim to north Italy of Celtic heritage.

[–] flandish@lemmy.world -2 points 11 hours ago (1 children)

Israel was a person’s name. The modern nation state is not.

[–] Lauchmelder@feddit.org 4 points 9 hours ago* (last edited 9 hours ago)

Israel was an iron age kingdom. The person Israel is a personification used by the bible to describe the origins of said kingdom. Israel then became a name.

[–] Witchfire@lemmy.world -2 points 21 hours ago (1 children)

They don't care, they'd rewrite history if they could to have existed since the dawn of civilization

[–] encelado748@feddit.org 3 points 21 hours ago

Even if they do not care, should historians care with giving correct information to museums visitors?

[–] homesweethomeMrL@lemmy.world 10 points 22 hours ago

What. The actual. Fuck.

[–] GandalftheBlack@feddit.org 3 points 21 hours ago* (last edited 21 hours ago)

Insert the turning the calendar to 1984 meme, but unironically

[–] Encephalotrocity@feddit.online -2 points 21 hours ago