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Causes of Death in London (1623)
(mander.xyz)
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Ignoring that in 1632 it might've been easier for murder to go undetected, here are the numbers of present day London. It's about 13.1 mpm, even lower than in 1632, about a third of present day New York.
https://www.statista.com/statistics/862984/murders-in-london/
America is not really a shining example when it comes to those things...
New York's murder rate (and the overall murder rate in the USA) is shaped by a history of race relations which is quite different from London's. A white person in New York is much less likely (and conversely a black or Hispanic person is much more likely) to be murdered than the overall murder rate for the city might lead someone to think.
Oh, well, carry on then.
Username checks out.
Source
Source
Black and Hispanic people make up 52% of the city's population but 88% of the murder victims. The murder rate of the white and Asian population works out to approximately 8.4 per million, so the average European tourist is not in much danger here.
Yeah, exactly. You seem to arbitrarily place higher value on white people's lives...
I'm not making a value judgement. I'm explaining why New York City's murder rate is so much higher than London's. It's because NYC has a population of white and Asian people who are as safe as Europeans and another, de facto segregated population of black and Hispanic people who are much less safe.
I presume that a big part of the reason why things are the way they are is that society places a higher value on white people's lives, but I'm not doing that here. Explaining isn't the same as justifying.
Why bring it up at all then? The topic was New York being unsafe, you come rushing it explaining it's because of the brown people.
Welp. Even though at this point I'm leaning towards "very clumsy with words" rather than "disgusting racist", I don't really have much interest in talking to you further.
It's a lot harder to murder somebody when you actually have to stab them or beat their head in with something.